What was the difference between the mode of economic existence of the English bourgeoisie of the 17th century and the way of life of the Roman horsemen of the 1st century BC? Which of these classes can be considered more progressive?
Roman horsemen profited from the exploitation of slaves and the income from the payment of taxes (i.e., the exploitation of the inhabitants of the provinces). Both of these activities were pure robbery. The British bourgeois used the hired labor of free, poor citizens who could raise their wages by strikes and other pressures, so that the labor resource used was compensated.
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